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Re: Why darcs? What does the 'physicists proof' actually prove?: msg#00076version-control.darcs.user
On Wednesday, July 23, 2003, at 09:27 PM, David Roundy wrote: Just one more thought I had on the differences between VAP and darcs. That I guess an equivalent restriction on VAP would be: VAP(A, B).A <--> VAP(B, A).B In the absence of conflicts, I believe this holds for the VAP function (although I haven't proved it formally or anything :). When conflicts exist, VAP is a little less well defined -- it states that the user resolves the conflict. I would also expect that VAP(Inv(A), VAP(A, B)) <--> B, again in the absence of conflicts. This is the VAP equivalent of the statement that two commutes gets you back where you started. Theorem 2 states that P2'.P1 <-> P1'.P2 iff Inv(P1').P2' <-> P2.Inv(P1) Ahhh. With VAP, the VAP function detects conflicts (where in darcs, commute is used to detect conflicts). But, how do you get Inv(P1') and/or P2' from Inv(P1').P2'? What tells This is a key point I was missing. Thank you for setting me straight. That makes everything much clearer. So to summarize, Theorem 2 tells us (with regard to merging--it also has At this point it is looking more and more to me that VAP and darcs are equivalent in the absence of conflicts. I don't understand darcs behaviour in the presence of conflicts well enough to say more. VAP uses the darcs concept of merge as the fundamental operation, and derives commute. darcs uses commute as the fundamental operation and derives merge. Again, thanks for taking the time to describe this in detail. Will :-} -- Dr William Uther National ICT Australia Phone: +61 2 9385 6926 School of Computer Science and Engineering Email: willu@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx University of New South Wales Jabber: willu@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx Sydney, Australia
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