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Re: HowTo multiple IP adresses on my WAN?: msg#00141security.firewalls.m0n0wall
Would it be possible to do a 1:1 like this: xxx.xxx.xxx.147/32 -> 192.168.1.90 ? Once you create the mapping, how do you create rules to allow traffic to come in from these IP's? A specific example, just for testing, would be VNC. I want to pass 5900 from xxx.xxx.xxx.147 to 192.168.1.90. Would I just pass from the WAN, any source, source port 5900, destination 66.146.190.147, destination port 5900? Also would it be possible for m0n0wall to act as a transparent bridge and filter the traffic that flows across it? So I could give a router on the other side of m0n0wall a public ip address that has been filtered by m0n0? Thank you. Joe On Wed, 4 Aug 2004 00:48:51 -0700, sylikc <sylikc@xxxxxxxxx> wrote: > For example, if you had an internal server that would use 146-150, and > your internal subnet is 192.168.1.0/24, do a 1:1 mapping for > xxx.xxx.xxx.146/32 -> 192.168.1.146 > xxx.xxx.xxx.147/32 -> 192.168.1.147 > xxx.xxx.xxx.148/32 -> 192.168.1.148 > xxx.xxx.xxx.149/32 -> 192.168.1.149 > xxx.xxx.xxx.150/32 -> 192.168.1.150 > > I'm not necessarily sure if you could map them all to the exact same > address, but in the case that you can't, just bind your server to > those addresses if you want to use all those external IPs to hit the > same internal server. |
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